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C. dedicated-vmac-mode
D. shortest-path and weighting
Answer: B

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B. 92% efficient 400-Watt power supply
C. USB 2.0 front-mounted charging port
D. Compact and flexible charging port
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NEW QUESTION: 3
In order to recognize the practical aspects of multilevel security in
which, for example, an unclassified paragraph in a Secret document has
to be moved to an Unclassified document, the Bell-LaPadula model
introduces the concept of a:
A. Trusted subject
B. Secure exchange
C. Data flow
D. Simple security property
Answer: A
Explanation:
The model permits a trusted subject to violate the *-property but to comply with the intent of the *-property. Thus, a person who is a trusted subject could move unclassified data from a classified document to an unclassified document without violating the intent of the *-property. Another example would be for a trusted subject to downgrade the classification of material when it has been determined that the downgrade would not harm national or organizational security and would not violate the intent of the *-property. The simple security property (ss-property), answer "Simple security property", states that a subject cleared for one classification cannot read data from a higher classification. This property is also known as the no read up property. Answers Secure exchange and Data flow are distracters.

NEW QUESTION: 4
Given the following estimated financial results, value the stock of Magic Holdings, Inc. using the infinite period dividend discount model (DDM).
Which of the following choices is closest to the value of Magic Holding Inc. stock? (Note: Carry calculations out to at least 3 decimals.)
A. Unable to calculate stock value because ke < g.
B. $109.27.
C. $23.54.
D. $44.64.
Answer: B
Explanation:
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
Here, we are given all the inputs we need. Use the following steps to calculate the value of the stock:
First, expand the infinite period DDM:
DDMformula: P0= D1/ (ke- g)
D1
= (Earnings * Payout ratio) / average number of shares outstanding
= ($200,000 * 0.625) / 50,000 = $2.50.
ke
= nominal risk free rate + [beta * (expected market return - nominal risk free rate)] Note: Nominal risk-free rate = (1 + real risk free rate) * (1 + expected inflation) - 1
=(1.035)*(1.040) - 1 = 0.0764, or 7.64%.
ke
= 7.64% + [1.8 * (13.0% - 7.64%)] = 0.17288.
g
= (retention rate * ROE)
Retention = (1 - Payout) = 1 - 0.625 = 0.375.
ROE = (net income/sales)*(sales/total assets)*(total assets/equity)
= (200,000/1,000,000)*(1,000,000/750,000)*(750,000/500,000) = 0.40
g
= 0.375 * 0.40 = 0.15.
Then, calculate:P0= D1/ (ke- g) = $2.50 / (0.17288 - 0.15) = 109.27.

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