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Exam Code: CS0-002
Exam Name: CompTIA Cybersecurity Analyst (CySA+) Certification Exam
Vendor: CompTIA

60 Questions & Answers
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NEW QUESTION: 1
The nurse is trying to help a mother understand what is happening with her son who has recently been diagnosed with paranoid schizophrenia. At present, he is experiencing hallucinations and delusions of persecution and suffers from poor hygiene. The nurse can best help her understand her son's condition by which of the following statements?
A. "If your son has a twin, he probably will eventually develop schizophrenia, too."
B. "Some of his symptoms may be a result of his lack of a strong mother-child bonding relationship."
C. "Has anyone in your family ever had schizophrenia?"
D. "Sometimes these symptoms are caused by an overstimulation of a chemical called dopamine in the brain."
Answer: D
Explanation:
(A) The most plausible theory to date is that dopamine causes an overstimulation in the brain, which results in the psychotic symptoms. (B) This statement will only create anxiety in the mother, and the genetic theory is only one of the etiological factors. (C) This statement will cause the mother much alarm, and nothing was mentioned about any other child. (D) The motherchild relationship is one of the previous theories examined, but it is not one to be emphasized, thereby causing a lot of anxiety for the mother.

NEW QUESTION: 2
Which network device functions only at Layer 1 of the OSI model?

A. Option C
B. Option B
C. Option A
D. Option D
E. Option E
Answer: B
Explanation:
Most hubs are amplifying the electrical signal; therefore, they are really repeaters with several ports. Hubs and repeaters are Layer 1 (physical layer) devices.

NEW QUESTION: 3
As part of designing a reverse stress test, at what point should a bank's business plan be considered unviable (ie the point where it can be considered to have failed)?
A. When the realization of risks leads market participants to lose confidence in the bank as a counterparty or a business worthy of funding
B. Where EBITDA for the year is forecast to be negative
C. When the regulatory capital of the bank has been exhausted
D. Where large known losses have been incurred on the bank's positions
Answer: A
Explanation:
Explanation
As part of a reverse stress test, a firm has to identify and assess the scenarios most likely to cause it to fail, or in other words using the language used by the FSA in the UK, for its current business plan to become unviable. A firm's business plan should be considered to become unviable at the point that crystallizing risks cause the market to lose confidence it it, with the consequence that counterparties and other stakeholders are unwilling to transact with it or provide capital to the firm and, where releant, that existing counterparties may seek to terminate their contracts. Recent experience suggests that this point is reached well before a firm's regulatory capital is exhausted.
Large known losses, or negative EBITDA (earnings before interest , tax, depreciation and amortization) may be indicators or contribute to the loss of confidence, but do not of themselves make the current business plan unviable. Therefore Choice 'd' is the correct answer.

NEW QUESTION: 4
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Which tool should be used to help the customer purchase the best tier of disk for future disk purchases on the IBM DS8880?
A. STAT tool
B. Capacity Magic
C. Easy Tier Heat Map Transfer
D. TCOnow! Tool
Answer: A


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